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Topic starter
17/03/2022 12:43 pm
I understand with actual risk is, but I'm a little confused on how the math works. If my 2:1 profit target is based on actual risk, how does that make up for initial risk? It seems that the profit structure for actual risk is scalping when considering initial risk because the profit target often less than 1:1 when based on initial risk.
This topic was modified 3 years ago by Marcus Beasley
